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Which two options would you use to allow direct path loads to run in parallel on your Exadata platform? (Choose two.)
A. creating the required environment by using Smart Scan parallelization
B. setting the initialization parameter PARALLEL_ENABLED to TRUE to enable parallel direct path loads
C. setting the PARALLEL clause on both the external table and the table where you are loading the data
D. adding the PARALLEL hint to the CTAS or IAS statement
E. setting the PARALLEL_FORCE_LOCAL parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: CD


What are two value propositions for using the Oracle Configuration Manager (OCM) on Exadata? (Choose two.)
A. automatic resolution of configuration issues without customer intervention
B. improved access to best practices and Oracle knowledge base
C. fewer SRs to open
D. guaranteed better performance
E. faster issue resolution
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E40166_01/html/E40167/z4001567132545836.html


Which statement explains the difference between Normal and High redundancy ASM failure groups?
A. Normal redundancy protects the DATA diskgroup, whereas High redundancy protects the RECO diskgroup.
B. Normal redundancy (best practice) provides protection against two simultaneous disk failures, whereas High
redundancy provides protection against a single disk failure or an entire storage server failure.
C. High redundancy gives more usable storage, whereas Normal redundancy provides better I/O performance.
D. Normal redundancy protects from disk failure when a cell is offline or being updated, whereas High redundancy
protects the system when all the cells are offline.
E. Normal redundancy tolerates a single cell failure, whereas High redundancy tolerates a two-cell failure.
Correct Answer: E
Reference: http://blog.umairmansoob.com/tag/using-high-vs-normal-redundancy-in-exadata/


Your customer would like to configure monitoring capabilities alongside ASR on the stand-alone server that was set
aside to run ASR Manager.
What configuration would you set up for the customer?
A. Enterprise Manager, SQL Developer Server, and ASR Manager on the stand-alone server because ASR needs SQL
Developer to gain SQL access to the database server
B. ASR Manager inside the firewall to ensure that root access to Exadata Database Machine is not compromised
C. ASR Manager with SNMP traps configured to listen for specific alerts triggered by Exadata Database Machine
D. Enterprise Manager (Ops Center) and ASR Manager on the stand-alone server because ASR is not a monitoring
Correct Answer: D


Which two terms correctly describe the concept of moving database processing from the database layer to the storage
layer to reduce the volume of data that needs to be processed by the database server? (Choose two.)
A. sharding
B. offloading
C. Smart Scan
D. predicate filtering
E. column projection
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/exadata/exadata-dbmachine-x4-twp-2076451.pdf


Which statement is true about instance caging setup?
A. The initialization parameter resource_manager_planshould be set.
B. For a system with 16 threads, the sum of cpu_count for all databases should not be higher than 32 to prevent
C. Database instances need to be restarted to make changes to cpu_counteffective.
D. The CPU Resource Manager and IORM need to be enabled to make instance caging to work as expected.
E. Instance caging is the right approach to make sure that database instances are not stealin memory from one
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/performance/instance-caging-wp-166854.pdf


Which statement is true about Oracle compression?
A. A partitioned table can use only Advanced Compression or only Hybrid Columnar Compression.
B. Hybrid Columnar Compression can be defined for a single column.
C. A non-partitioned table can use Advanced Compression and Hybrid Columnar Compression concurrently.
D. A partitioned table can define the use of Advanced Compression Hybrid Columnar Compression for each partition.
Correct Answer: A


Your customer would like to install security software on all systems that are hosted out of their datacenter. Which
statement correctly identifies Oracle guide line on where security software can be installed on Exadata?
A. The security software can be installed on the database server or a storage cells as long as the software is certified for
Oracle enterprise Linux.
B. The security software can be installed on the database server or storage cells as required.
C. The security software can be installed on database server but not on the storage cell.
D. The security software can be installed on database server but not on the storage cells unless the software is explicitly
certified for Oracle enterprise Linux.
Correct Answer: C

Your government customer has purchased a full rack of Exadata. The customer has two departments that would like to
share the Exadata Database Machine but the concern is that department A will be able to see data from department B.
Which architecture would you suggest to solve this deployment issue?
A. Split the configuration by using Oracle Nimbula\\’s cloud software so that four database servers and seven cells can
be used by department A and the rest can be used by department B.
B. Split the configuration and use ASM-Scoped Security so that four database servers and seven cells can be used by
department A and the rest can be used by department B.
C. Set up instance caging to ensure that department A has access only to four database servers and seven cells and
department B has access to the rest.
D. Define the split by setting up database services that are specific to department A and department B.
Correct Answer: D


Which statement is true about Exadata Storage Servers?
A. Exadata Storage Servers automatically delete old diagnostic and metric files.
B. Exadata requires a running database instance on all storage servers and database servers.
C. Redundancy for the user data that is stored in a database that is running on Exadata is achieved with RAID5.
D. Communication between a database and an Exadata storage flows over low latency 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
E. Exadata uses network affinity to determine which storage server data is written.
Correct Answer: A


Which CellCLI command is used to conclude that a storage server can be taken offline without impacting database
B. LIST CELLDISK ATTRIBUTES name, raidLevel, asmModeStatus;
D. LIST GRIDDISK ATTRIBUTES name, asmDeactivationOutcome;
E. LIST CELL ATTRIBUTES cellsrvStatus, flashCacheMode;
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: ASMDeactivationOutcome recall that grid disks can be deactivated, which is effectively taking them offline.
Since ASM mirroring ensures that the data is located on another disk, making this disk offline does not lose data.
However, if the mirror is offline, or is not present, then making this grid disk offline will result in loss of data. This
attribute shows whether the grid disk can be deactivated without loss of data. A value of “Yes” indicates you can
deactivate this grid disk without data loss. CellCLI> list griddisk attributes name, ASMDeactivationOutcome,
ASMModeStatus DBFS_DG_CD_02_cell01 Yes ONLINE DBFS_DG_CD_03_cell01 Yes ONLINE
DBFS_DG_CD_04_cell01 Yes ONLINE


To patch an Exadata cloud instance, you need to run the exadbcpatchmulti command as root from the compute node.
exadbcpatchmulti uses the exadbcpatch.cfg file to provide information about the location of files related to patching
operations as well as additional parameters related to these operations.
What is the purpose of the sw_bkup_needed=1 parameter that can be set in the exadbcpatch.cfg file?
A. creates a backup of the patch in case of an error in the patching routine
B. performs a backup of each Oracle home directory before a patch is applied
C. forces the software to create a backup of the exadbpatch.cfg file
D. adds a dialog box that prompts for a backup before the patch can be applied
E. creates a backup of the Oracle database data files
Correct Answer: E


What type of SRs does the ASR Manager generate for Exadata?
A. operating system components
B. software assets
C. hardware assets
D. data entry errors
E. backup and restore failures
Correct Answer: B

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